Matthew makes a passing reference to Nazareth. Is this the same incident? He has just said that following the temptation the Lord returned to Galilee, and then adds, ‘And leaving Nazareth, he came and dwelt in Capernaum (Matthew 4:13). He says this without telling us what happened in Nazareth, but he seems to say this because Nazareth was the obvious place for Christ to make his base. However it was not to be, and Luke tells us why: he relocated on account of this attempt on his life. Luke 4:31 seems to be parallel to Matthew 4:31. But Matthew and Mark handle what seems to be the same event (see notes on Luke 4:16-17) separately (Matthew 13:54-58 and Mark 6:1-6).